Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 20.06.2025 07:17
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Have you ever regretted not hitting on a older women?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Is it possible to become homeless after being released from jail or prison in the United States?
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.